historical linguistics - Are there any languages that have a pronoun ...
2020年7月24日 · Though the use of royal pronouns are not current in Indonesia (considering Indonesia no longer have functioning royalties) they are still used in Malaysia and Brunei. First Person pronoun Malay has several first person pronouns (mainly because the modern Malay language/languages developed from trying to standardize the various Malay dialects ...
plurality - Does Biblical Hebrew have a plural of majesty ...
2021年2月23日 · The royal we is related to the T-V distinction in languages like French, which can use the second person plural pronoun (vous) as a polite / honorific form to address singular persons, instead of the singular form (tu). Biblical Hebrew has a different system for polite address; it avoids the second person and uses the third person instead.
Newest 'pronouns' Questions - Linguistics Stack Exchange
Most English person pronouns have an objective case — I/me, we/us, thou/thee, he/him, she/her, they/them ...
Did/Do most languages use a similar pronoun to the plural for …
2019年12月19日 · The formality distinction you are talking about is sometimes called the "T/V" distinction, because in a lot of the European languages that have a formality distinction in 2nd person singular pronouns have an informal singular with a "t" and a formal singular with a "v" (as many Romance and Slavic languages took the "v" form from the plural, and have similar roots …
Is there a language where there are personal pronouns for the first …
2020年10月3日 · In addition, there are several "layers" of politeness, e.g. language for addressing members of royal family and Buddhist monks; for TV/press; for colloquial conversation, etc. On the colloquial level, both genders use ฉัน /chan/ for 1st singular pronoun.
Why did English stop using thou? - Linguistics Stack Exchange
2019年1月2日 · A monarch referred to himself as the royal "we". People wanted to use the plural "you" to confer formality. It always helps to compliment someone you don't' know! So this became the more formal version. Eventually thou became associated with a downgrade, and people forgot about the royalty thing.
Why do two English personal pronouns — "you" and "it" — lack …
2021年11月8日 · I would not say that these pronouns lack an objective case. It is just that the subject (nominative) and object (accusative) forms are identical. In Old English, as in virtually all Indo-European languages, neuter nouns and pronouns always have the same form in the nominative and accusative, in the case of Old English "hit" for the 3rd person ...
Why are pronouns considered grammatical (functional) morphemes?
The canonical answer is no: there's a finite set of roles distinguished in English and we already have a pronoun for each of them. We also have a fixed correspondence between pronouns and derived forms (he: him:: she: her, etc.), and this relationship is immutable. But here, too, pronouns do display some noun-like qualities.
Why does the pronoun and verb order vary in Polish language?
2021年10月2日 · The Polish pronouns ja (“I”), ty (“you singular, thou”), on (“he”), ono (“it”) have two sets of forms in the Genitive, Dative, and Accusative cases: a full form and a clitic form. The clitic form has no stress of its own and intonationally it is attached to the previous word, therefore the clitic forms cannot begin a sentence ...
Type of pronouns, bound/free - Linguistics Stack Exchange
2019年1月15日 · The terms get used in several ways, but I'd assume that a free pronoun was a word that participated in the syntax, while a bound pronoun was morphologically attached to some other root, typically a verb or auxiliary (though Px -- possessive affixes like those attached to nouns in Turkish or Mayan are bound pronouns, too).